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        Old 9th May 2003, 21:57   #1 (permalink)
        TiAgM5Miami
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        Need some help regarding a bad situation with a vehicle history....

        I traded my 1999 Porsche 996 C2 for my M5 about 2 months ago. My Porsche had been in an accident in January and I no longer desired to own the car. I knew I would take a loss because of that. They took the Porsche to do the pre trade inspection while I drove the M5's they had. When I came back to make the deal they had mentioned something about Canada on the report which I just said that was impossible but didnt think much of it. I signed all the paperwork and went on my way. But for some reason I decided to pull my own carfax on it yesterday. Now heres where it gets interesting. The first owner purchased the car in Orlando in 99. In 00 it was traded in for a Turbo in Miami. My friend bought the car that same year until he traded it in last summer for the C4S. I went back to the dealer and purchased it in December (for less than they gave him for trade in no less). So the car fax shows all of those transactions on it. But it also shows that on 10/29/2001 a registration was issued to someone in Toronto, Canada for a car with the same VIN number and that car is still registered. The person at the Ministry of Transportation in Toronto indicated that it did not match the names of myself or my friend. So thinking back to the deal on the ///M5 I realize that I probably took some loss of value because of the canadian info on the title history. I faxed proofs of the ownerships to the Canadian authorities requesting an investigation. It seems very obvious that some type of fraud has been commited. Once this is uncovered could I be entitled to some sort of restitution because of this?

        Last edited by TiAgM5Miami; 10th May 2003 at 01:23.
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        Old 9th May 2003, 22:08   #2 (permalink)
        M Power
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        wow

        No idea... sounds incredible that it happened the way you descrtibe..

        Any lawyers on the board...? Come on, don't be embarressed
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